UPSC EPFO APFC 2023 question paper with answers
UPSC EPFO APFC Recruitment Test 2023 (General Studies) (Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner). General Studies for Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner: General English, Indian history and culture, current events, polity and economy, accounting, labour laws, social security, general science and computers, and quantitative aptitude (120 questions, 300 marks, 2 hours). Held on 2 July 2023 (Advt. 51/2023, Series A, official key). All four options with the answer from UPSC's official answer key, plus a short explanation for every question (the first 10 here, all of them in the app). Each question is shown in English and Hindi, as printed in the booklet.
यूपीएससी ईपीएफओ सहायक भविष्य निधि आयुक्त (APFC) भर्ती परीक्षा 2023 प्रश्न पत्र, उत्तर कुंजी सहित
Practise this paper onlineTake it as a timed testMake a topic-wise quizThe answers and explanations of the first 10 questions are free on this page. For all 120, practise the paper in the app: 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Subjects in this paper
All 120 questions
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P: before the judge Q: given that he was clearly innocent R: was incomprehensible S: his decision to plead guilty
- SQRP
- QPSR
- QSPR
- SRQP
Show answer
Answer: (3) QSPR
The sentence is "Given that he was clearly innocent, his decision to plead guilty before the judge was incomprehensible." Q is an introductory clause ("given that" = considering that) that sets the context, S supplies the subject "his decision to plead guilty", P must follow it directly because one pleads guilty before a judge, and R "was incomprehensible" is the predicate. QPSR wrongly attaches "before the judge" to "innocent" instead of to "plead guilty", while SQRP and SRQP leave "before the judge" stranded at the end, where it attaches to "incomprehensible" or "innocent" and distorts the meaning.
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P: when your stated principles Q: it is difficult R: are at odds with your ground realities S: to practise what you preach
- PRSQ
- SPRQ
- QPRS
- QSPR
Show answer
Answer: (4) QSPR
The sentence is "It is difficult to practise what you preach when your stated principles are at odds with your ground realities." Q is an anticipatory "it" clause and needs the infinitive S ("to practise what you preach") as its real subject immediately after it; the "when" clause then follows, with P giving its subject and R its verb. PRSQ and SPRQ end with a stranded "it is difficult", and QPRS separates "it is difficult" from the infinitive it introduces. To practise what you preach means to act as you advise others to act.
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P: people in dire need Q: it is a truth universally acknowledged that R: for assistance S: reach out to their friends and family
- QPSR
- PSRQ
- QRPS
- RQPS
Show answer
Answer: (1) QPSR
The sentence is "It is a truth universally acknowledged that people in dire need reach out to their friends and family for assistance." Q is the main clause and ends in "that", so it must open the sentence and be followed by a full noun clause: P is its subject, S its verb ("reach out to their friends and family") and R completes it, since one reaches out to someone for assistance. PSRQ leaves "that" hanging at the end, while QRPS and RQPS detach "for assistance" from "reach out". The opening echoes the first line of Jane Austen's Pride and Prejudice.
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P: his vengeful Q: by the expression on his face R: and diabolical nature S: were clearly revealed
- QSPR
- QPRS
- PSQR
- PRSQ
Show answer
Answer: (4) PRSQ
The sentence is "His vengeful and diabolical nature were clearly revealed by the expression on his face." P and R together form the subject (two adjectives joined by "and" before the noun "nature"), S is the passive verb, and Q is the agent phrase with "by", which naturally comes after a passive verb. PSQR splits the adjectives from "nature", and the options beginning with Q put the "by" phrase before the verb it depends on, which is unnatural. Vengeful means seeking revenge; diabolical means wicked or devilish. (Strictly, the singular "nature" takes "was", but the parts are fixed as printed.)
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P: bitter fights Q: between the two rival teams R: on more than one occasion S: I have witnessed
- SRQP
- RSPQ
- QPRS
- SQRP
Show answer
Answer: (2) RSPQ
The sentence is "On more than one occasion I have witnessed bitter fights between the two rival teams." R is a fronted adverbial of frequency, S gives the subject and verb, P is the object, and Q must follow P directly because it tells us which fights ("fights between the two rival teams"). SRQP and SQRP both put "between the two rival teams" before "bitter fights", which it should follow, and QPRS opens with a phrase that has nothing to attach to. SPQR would also be correct, but it is not among the options.
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word "platitudes". The essay was badly researched and contained several "platitudes" and generalizations.
- Incorrect statements
- Imprecise comments
- Often used and unoriginal ideas
- Vague, subjective statements
Show answer
Answer: (3) Often used and unoriginal ideas
A platitude is a remark, often with a moral tone, that has been used so often that it is stale and unoriginal, for example "honesty is the best policy" in an essay that offers nothing new. That fits an essay that was badly researched. Platitudes are usually true, so "incorrect statements" is wrong. "Imprecise comments" and "vague, subjective statements" describe generalizations, which the sentence mentions separately. The key idea is triteness, not inaccuracy or vagueness. Related words: cliche, banality, truism.
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word "disinterested". The judgment of beauty is based on the human capacity for "disinterested" pleasure in the natural world.
- Indifference
- Free of all self-interest
- Not caring for something
- Extremely focused
Show answer
Answer: (2) Free of all self-interest
Disinterested means impartial: not influenced by personal advantage or any wish to own or use the thing. The sentence echoes Kant's idea in aesthetics that pleasure in beauty is "disinterested", enjoyed for its own sake and not because we want or gain anything from the object. The trap is to confuse "disinterested" with "uninterested", which means indifferent or not caring (options 1 and 3). A disinterested judge is fair, not bored. "Extremely focused" has no connection with the word.
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word "derelict". The hundred-year old college building was now in a "derelict" state.
- Preserved for historical value
- Unsafe for occupation
- Neglected and broken down
- Retaining its original beauty
Show answer
Answer: (3) Neglected and broken down
Derelict (of a building or property) means in very poor condition because it has been abandoned and neglected, that is, dilapidated or run-down, as in "a derelict factory". "Neglected and broken down" gives exactly both parts of this sense. A derelict building may well be unsafe to live in, but that is a consequence, not the meaning of the word. "Preserved for historical value" and "retaining its original beauty" are nearly the opposite. As a noun, a derelict is a homeless, destitute person.
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word "serendipitous". My "serendipitous" encounter with the man on the bus was to have a profound impact on my life.
- Fortunate
- Of historical significance
- Sudden and abrupt
- A chance event
Show answer
Answer: (4) A chance event
Serendipitous means happening or found by chance, usually in a happy or beneficial way. The essential idea is chance: the meeting on the bus was unplanned. "Fortunate" captures only the happy side and misses the element of accident, while the good effect is already stated separately ("a profound impact on my life"). "Sudden and abrupt" refers to speed, not chance, and "of historical significance" is unrelated. The word was coined by Horace Walpole in 1754 from the tale The Three Princes of Serendip (Serendip being Sri Lanka).
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word "complacency". Notwithstanding our victory today we must be careful to avoid a feeling of "complacency".
- Smug and self-satisfied
- A defensive attitude
- Pride
- Feeling of superiority
Show answer
Answer: (1) Smug and self-satisfied
Complacency is a smug, uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one's achievements, which makes a person relax and ignore dangers or the need to improve. After a victory the risk is exactly that: feeling self-satisfied and letting one's guard down, which is why the speaker says "notwithstanding our victory". "Pride" and "feeling of superiority" are related but lack the sense of contented carelessness, and "a defensive attitude" is unrelated. Do not confuse it with complaisance, which means willingness to please others.
Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives—to preserve crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s—from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017–18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products. The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping. There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). What does "agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats" mean in the passage?
- Area marked by excessive agricultural yield
- Area suitable for developing tourism
- Area with pollution-free characteristics
- Area meant for sustainable farming that works in tandem with nature
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives—to preserve crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s—from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017–18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products. The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping. There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). There has been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation because
- the millet crop requires special manures to grow
- the land of Namakkal district is not suitable for growing millet
- there has been shift towards growing more profitable crops
- the land is declared as not climate-resilient for the production of millet
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives—to preserve crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s—from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017–18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products. The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping. There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). What does "a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products" mean in the passage?
- Enough was not done for the marketing of millet as a diverse food product.
- A small quantity of millet is used with other grains.
- The demand for millet is not very encouraging.
- Millet does not have potential health benefits.
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives—to preserve crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s—from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017–18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products. The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping. There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). "The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer." What does it mean in the passage?
- Machinery for processing millets is not advanced enough.
- Self-help groups are active in improving machinery for various crops.
- The use of improvised local machines for removing husk from millets has been a turning point for millet farming.
- The process of milling the millets is at a small scale.
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives—to preserve crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s—from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017–18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products. The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping. There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). Millet yield has increased because
- sustainable farming practices are being followed
- farmers are exporting millet
- more labour is employed for farming
- easy bank loans are available now
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the phrase in italics, "too great and beautiful to be expressed in words". Her poetry not only succeeds in brilliantly capturing the beauty of nature but also carries the power to suggest that which is "too great and beautiful to be expressed in words".
- the unknown
- the proscribed
- the intangible
- the ineffable
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Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the phrase in italics, "the poverty-stricken". The Government's policies were aimed at relieving the distress of the homeless, the unemployed and "the poverty-stricken" sections of society.
- needy
- indigent
- disadvantaged
- challenged
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Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the phrase in italics, "speeches that tended to provoke and ignite passions". The organizers refused to allow him to speak at the function since he was known to make "speeches that tended to provoke and ignite passions".
- irreverent speeches
- incendiary speeches
- unsubstantiated speeches
- irrelevant speeches
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Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the phrase in italics, "restricted to small local issues". She was criticized for her views that were often "restricted to small local issues" and ignored matters of national importance.
- unilateral
- illiberal
- parochial
- limited
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Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the phrase in italics, "dropping steeply all of a sudden". When profits began "dropping steeply all of a sudden" he realized that he ought to wind up his business soon.
- precipitously
- instantaneously
- cataclysmically
- dramatically
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Which one among the following observations pertaining to the works of Nineteenth-Twentieth Century archaeologists is not correct?
- Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, was of the view that the history of India began with the origins of the Indus Valley Civilization.
- John Marshall generally adopted the method of excavation along regular horizontal units and ignored the stratigraphy of the site.
- R. E. M. Wheeler first recognized the necessity to follow the stratigraphy of the mound rather than dig along horizontal lines.
- Amalananda Ghosh was the first to identify similarities between pre-Harappan and mature-Harappan cultures.
उन्नीसवीं-बीसवीं शताब्दी के पुरातत्त्वविदों के कार्यों से संबंधित निम्नलिखित प्रेक्षणों में से कौन-सा एक सही नहीं है?
- भारतीय पुरातत्त्व सर्वेक्षण के पहले महानिदेशक अलेक्जैंडर कनिंघम का मत था कि भारत का इतिहास सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता के उद्भव से शुरू हुआ।
- जॉन मार्शल ने आमतौर पर नियमित समतल इकाइयों के साथ-साथ उत्खनन की पद्धति अपनाई और स्थल के स्तरविन्यास की उपेक्षा की।
- आर॰ ई॰ एम॰ व्हीलर ने समतल रेखाओं के साथ-साथ खुदाई करने के स्थान पर टीले के स्तरविन्यास का अनुसरण करने की आवश्यकता को सबसे पहले पहचाना।
- अमलानंद घोष पूर्व-हड़प्पा और परिपक्व-हड़प्पा संस्कृतियों के बीच समानताओं की पहचान करने वाले पहले व्यक्ति थे।
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Which one of the following was an important contributing factor in the rise of Magadha as the most powerful Mahajanapada between the Sixth and the Fourth Centuries BCE?
- Easy access to rich gold mines
- Superior cavalry
- An agriculturally productive region
- Republican system of governance
निम्नलिखित में से किसका छठी और चौथी शताब्दी ईसा पूर्व के बीच मगध के सबसे शक्तिशाली महाजनपद के रूप में उभरने में महत्त्वपूर्ण योगदान था?
- समृद्ध स्वर्ण खदानों तक सुगम पहुँच
- अपेक्षाकृत उत्कृष्ट अश्वारोही सेना
- कृषि की उपज वाला क्षेत्र
- शासन की गणतंत्रीय व्यवस्था
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Which one among the following statements about the Kailashanatha temple at Ellora is not correct?
- The temple was carved out of rocks in the Eighth Century CE.
- The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- The superstructure of the temple corresponds to the Nagara style.
- The temple has both Shaiva and Vaishnava sculptures.
एलोरा के कैलाशनाथ मंदिर के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही नहीं है?
- यह मंदिर आठवीं शताब्दी ईस्वी में शिलाओं में से उत्कीर्ण कर बनाया गया था।
- यह मंदिर भगवान् शिव को समर्पित है।
- इस मंदिर का ऊपरी ढाँचा नागर शैली से मिलता-जुलता है।
- इस मंदिर में शैव और वैष्णव दोनों ही मूर्तिशिल्प मिलते हैं।
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Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian pottery is correct?
- Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) refers to a type of pottery found from archaeological sites in India dating back to 600 BCE.
- Painted Grey Ware (PGW) refers to a type of pottery found over a large part of South India coinciding with the Sangam period.
- Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) sites are located in South India only.
- Black-and-Red Ware (BRW) is never found at Neolithic sites.
प्राचीन भारतीय मृद्भांड के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही है?
- उत्तरी कृष्ण ओपयुक्त मृद्भांड (NBPW) उस प्रकार के मृद्भांड को निर्दिष्ट करता है, जो 600 ईसा पूर्व के भारत के पुरातत्त्व-स्थलों से मिलते हैं।
- चित्रित धूसर मृद्भांड (PGW) उस प्रकार के मृद्भांड को निर्दिष्ट करता है, जो संगम काल के आसपास दक्षिण भारत के बड़े भूभाग में मिलते हैं।
- गैरिक मृद्भांड (OCP) स्थल केवल दक्षिण भारत में अवस्थित हैं।
- कृष्ण-एवं-लाल मृद्भांड (BRW) नवपाषाण स्थलों पर कभी नहीं मिलते हैं।
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Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Ancient Text/Term) : (Meaning)
- Samarangana-Sutradhara : A scientific work on ancient Indian architecture
- Harmika : A style of temple architecture that originated under the Chola Kings
- Vimana : A striking feature of the Dravidian style of temples
- Kutagarashala : A hut with a pointed roof where travelling mendicants halted
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है? (प्राचीन ग्रंथ/नाम) : (अर्थ)
- समरांगण-सूत्रधार : प्राचीन भारतीय वास्तुकला-विषयक वैज्ञानिक ग्रंथ
- हर्मिका : एक मंदिर वास्तुकला शैली जिसका उद्भव चोल राजाओं के अधीन हुआ
- विमान : द्रविड़ शैली के मंदिरों का एक असाधारण लक्षण
- कूटागारशाला : नुकीली छत वाली एक कुटी, जहाँ यात्री भिक्षु ठहरा करते थे
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
What is the time limit prescribed under the provisions of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 from the date of reference within which the Commissioner is required to dispose of the matter relating to compensation and intimate the decision to the employee?
- Six months
- One year
- Two months
- Three months
कर्मचारी प्रतिकर अधिनियम, 1923 के उपबंधों के अधीन निर्देश-तिथि से किस विहित समय-सीमा के अंदर आयुक्त (कमिश्नर) को प्रतिकर से संबंधित मामले का निपटान कर कर्मचारी को निर्णय से अवगत कराना अपेक्षित है?
- छः मास
- एक वर्ष
- दो मास
- तीन मास
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
What is the minimum number of employees employed by an establishment functioning without the aid of power and is registered under the Cooperative Societies Act, 1912 that shall require it to come within the purview of the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
- Fifty
- One hundred
- One hundred twenty
- One hundred fifty
शक्ति की सहायता के बिना चलने वाले और सहकारी सोसाइटी अधिनियम, 1912 के अधीन पंजीकृत किसी स्थापन द्वारा नियुक्त कर्मचारियों की न्यूनतम संख्या क्या है, जो उस स्थापन के कर्मचारी भविष्य निधि और प्रकीर्ण उपबंध अधिनियम, 1952 की परिधि के अंदर आने के लिए अपेक्षित है?
- पचास
- एक सौ
- एक सौ बीस
- एक सौ पचास
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Any question relating to disablement shall be determined by which one of the following authorities under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948?
- The Insurance Medical Practitioner
- The Social Security Officer
- The Medical Board
- The Medical Appeal Tribunal
कर्मचारी राज्य बीमा अधिनियम, 1948 के अधीन अशक्तता से संबंधित कोई प्रश्न निम्नलिखित में से किस प्राधिकारी द्वारा अवधारण किया जाएगा?
- बीमा चिकित्सा व्यवसायी
- सामाजिक सुरक्षा अधिकारी
- चिकित्सा बोर्ड
- चिकित्सा अपील अधिकरण
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What is the amount of compensation that is to be paid to an employee who is totally and permanently disabled as a result from injury under the provisions of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923? (Hints : Monthly wages drawn were ₹22,500 and relevant factor is 159.80)
- ₹14,38,200
- ₹23,97,000
- ₹21,57,300
- ₹7,67,040
कितनी प्रतिकर राशि उस कर्मचारी को भुगतान की जाएगी, जो कर्मचारी प्रतिकर अधिनियम, 1923 के उपबंधों के अधीन क्षति के परिणामस्वरूप स्थायी रूप से पूर्ण अशक्त हो गया है? (संकेत : आहरित मासिक मजदूरी ₹22,500 थी और सुसंगत गुणक 159.80 है)
- ₹14,38,200
- ₹23,97,000
- ₹21,57,300
- ₹7,67,040
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
What is the minimum number of employees required to be working in an establishment, so that the employer, with the authorization of the majority of the employees of the establishment, may apply to the Central Government to authorize the employer to create a separate Provident Fund Account for the employees under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
- One hundred
- Three hundred
- Five hundred
- One thousand
किसी स्थापन में न्यूनतम कितने कर्मचारी कार्यरत होने अपेक्षित हैं, ताकि नियोक्ता, स्थापन के बहुसंख्यक कर्मचारियों के प्राधिकार से, केन्द्र सरकार को इस आशय का आवेदन कर सके कि उस नियोक्ता को कर्मचारी भविष्य निधि और प्रकीर्ण उपबंध अधिनियम, 1952 के अधीन कर्मचारियों के लिए पृथक् भविष्य निधि लेखा सृजित करने के लिए प्राधिकृत किया जाए?
- एक सौ
- तीन सौ
- पाँच सौ
- एक हज़ार
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Following are the Central Federations of Trade Unions of Workers formed in India : 1. Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) 2. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) 3. Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA) 4. United Trade Union Congress (UTUC) 5. Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) 6. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their formation from the earliest to the latest?
- 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3
- 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 5
- 1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 6
- 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6
भारत में बनाए गए केन्द्रीय कामगार ट्रेड यूनियन महासंघ नीचे उल्लिखित हैं : 1. इंडियन नैशनल ट्रेड यूनियन काँग्रेस (INTUC) 2. ऑल इंडिया ट्रेड यूनियन काँग्रेस (AITUC) 3. स्वरोजगार महिला संघ (SEWA) 4. यूनाइटेड ट्रेड यूनियन काँग्रेस (UTUC) 5. सेंटर ऑफ इंडियन ट्रेड यूनियन्स (CITU) 6. भारतीय मजदूर संघ (BMS) निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक, उनके सबसे पहले से सबसे बाद में बनने का सही अनुक्रम है?
- 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3
- 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 5
- 1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 6
- 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following core conventions adopted by the International Labour Organization (ILO) has not been ratified by India?
- The Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
- The Equal Remuneration Convention (No. 100)
- The Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organize Convention (No. 87)
- The Discrimination (Employment and Occupation) Convention (No. 111)
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय श्रम संगठन (ILO) द्वारा अंगीकृत निम्नलिखित प्रमुख कन्वेंशनों में से किसकी भारत ने संपुष्टि नहीं की है?
- बलात् श्रम कन्वेंशन (सं॰ 29)
- समान पारिश्रमिक कन्वेंशन (सं॰ 100)
- संघ बनाने की स्वतंत्रता और सम्मेलन आयोजित करने के अधिकार का संरक्षण कन्वेंशन (सं॰ 87)
- भेदभाव (नियुक्ति एवं व्यवसाय) कन्वेंशन (सं॰ 111)
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Suppose there are five trade unions, namely A, B, C, D and E functioning in an establishment currently employing 1100 workmen. The membership strength of each union is as follows : Union A : 100 Union B : 370 Union C : 110 Union D : 275 Union E : 80 Based on the strength of membership, which of the above unions can be registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926?
- All the unions
- Unions A, B, C and D only
- Unions B, C and D only
- Unions B and D only
मान लीजिए पाँच ट्रेड यूनियन नामतः A, B, C, D और E किसी स्थापन में, जिसमें वर्तमान में 1100 कामगार नियुक्त हैं, कार्यरत हैं। प्रत्येक यूनियन का सदस्यता संख्याबल नीचे दिए अनुसार है : यूनियन A : 100 यूनियन B : 370 यूनियन C : 110 यूनियन D : 275 यूनियन E : 80 सदस्यता संख्याबल के आधार पर, उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से यूनियन, ट्रेड यूनियन अधिनियम, 1926 के अधीन पंजीकृत हो सकते हैं?
- सभी यूनियन
- केवल यूनियन A, B, C और D
- केवल यूनियन B, C और D
- केवल यूनियन B और D
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Registration of trade unions of workers under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is
- optional
- compulsory
- optional for workers working in non-public utility services
- compulsory for workers working in public utility services
ट्रेड यूनियन अधिनियम, 1926 के अधीन कामगारों के ट्रेड यूनियनों का पंजीकरण
- वैकल्पिक है
- अनिवार्य है
- गैर-सार्वजनिक सुविधा सेवा स्थापनों में कार्यरत कामगारों के लिए वैकल्पिक है
- सार्वजनिक सुविधा सेवा स्थापनों में कार्यरत कामगारों के लिए अनिवार्य है
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The Right of workers to resort to strike is the
- Fundamental Right
- Statutory Right
- Common Law Right
- Equitable Right
कामगारों का हड़ताल का आश्रय लेने का अधिकार
- मूल अधिकार है
- सांविधिक अधिकार है
- निर्णयज विधि (कॉमन लॉ) अधिकार है
- साम्यापूर्ण अधिकार है
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PQ and RS are chords on a circle centred at O. Suppose A is the point of intersection of PQ and RS. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. If A and O coincide, then the four parts of the circle produced by the chords shall always have equal areas. 2. If A and O do not coincide, then two of the four parts of the circle produced by the chords shall always have equal areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
O केन्द्र वाले एक वृत्त की जीवाएँ PQ और RS हैं। मान लीजिए PQ और RS का प्रतिच्छेद-बिन्दु A है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. यदि A और O संपाती हैं, तो जीवाओं द्वारा बने वृत्त के चारों भागों के क्षेत्रफल सदैव समान होंगे। 2. यदि A और O संपाती नहीं हैं, तो जीवाओं द्वारा बने वृत्त के चारों भागों में से दो भागों के क्षेत्रफल सदैव समान होंगे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
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P, Q, R, S and T are five friends. The mean of weights of P, Q, R and S is 50 kg, whereas the mean of weights of Q, R, S and T is also 50 kg. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The weight of T is 50 kg. 2. The weights of P and T are equal. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
P, Q, R, S और T पाँच मित्र हैं। P, Q, R और S के भारों का माध्य 50 kg है, जबकि Q, R, S और T के भारों का माध्य भी 50 kg है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. T का भार 50 kg है। 2. P और T के भार समान हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row facing North. P and S are neighbours; W is a neighbour of both Q and U; T is a neighbour of R and V. If there are four people between P and V, how many people are there between P and R?
- 1
- 3
- 5
- 6
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V और W एक पंक्ति में उत्तर की ओर मुँह किए बैठे हैं। P और S पड़ोसी हैं; Q और U दोनों का पड़ोसी W है; R और V का पड़ोसी T है। यदि P और V के बीच चार व्यक्ति हैं, तो P और R के बीच कितने व्यक्ति हैं?
- 1
- 3
- 5
- 6
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from the top and bottom of a 10 metres tall building are 30° and 45° respectively. Approximately what is the height of the tower in metres from the top of the building (given that √3 = 1.73)?
- 10.65
- 13.41
- 13.65
- 15.41
किसी मीनार के शिखर का, 10 मीटर ऊँचे भवन के शीर्ष और तल से उन्नयन कोण क्रमशः 30° और 45° हैं। भवन के शीर्ष से मीनार की ऊँचाई (मीटर में) लगभग क्या है (दिया है कि √3 = 1.73)?
- 10.65
- 13.41
- 13.65
- 15.41
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
A multiple-choice question paper has 50 questions. Each question has got four options, namely A, B, C and D. Each correct answer carries 4 marks and each wrong answer carries –1 mark. A candidate decides to tick in the pattern A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, ... and so on starting from Question No. 1, till the end. If option (C) is the correct answer in each question, then what is the total score of the candidate?
- 6
- 8
- 10
- 12
एक बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न-पत्र में 50 प्रश्न हैं। प्रत्येक प्रश्न के लिए चार विकल्प A, B, C और D हैं। प्रत्येक सही उत्तर के लिए 4 अंक हैं और प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर के लिए –1 अंक है। कोई अभ्यर्थी प्रश्न संख्या 1 से शुरू कर, पैटर्न A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, ... में टिक करना तय करता है और इसी क्रम में अंत तक। यदि प्रत्येक प्रश्न में विकल्प (C) सही उत्तर है, तो उस अभ्यर्थी का कुल प्राप्तांक क्या है?
- 6
- 8
- 10
- 12
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged completely by fire is
- capital receipt
- revenue receipt
- capital expenditure
- revenue expenditure
आग से मशीनरी के पूरी तरह क्षतिग्रस्त हो जाने के कारण प्राप्त बीमा दावा क्या है?
- पूँजीगत प्राप्ति
- राजस्व प्राप्ति
- पूँजीगत व्यय
- राजस्व व्यय
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
According to the Accounting Standard–1, which of the following are the fundamental accounting assumptions?
- Going Concern, Consistency, Accrual
- Going Concern, Money Measurement, Conservatism
- Going Concern, Consistency, Conservatism
- Going Concern, Accounting Period, Accrual
लेखाकरण मानक–1 के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी, मूल लेखाकरण मान्यताएँ हैं?
- सतत व्यापार, समनुरूपता, प्रोद्भवन
- सतत व्यापार, मुद्रा-मापन, रूढ़िवादिता
- सतत व्यापार, समनुरूपता, रूढ़िवादिता
- सतत व्यापार, लेखांकन अवधि, प्रोद्भवन
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following errors is not detected by Trial Balance?
- A credit purchase of ₹1,000 from Mr. Singh is credited wrongly to the account of Mr. Akash
- A credit purchase of ₹20,000 from Mr. Sandhu is recorded in the day book as ₹2,000
- Conversion of a temporary shed into a permanent building is recorded as repairs and maintenance expense
- Error in posting from the book of subsidiary record to the ledger
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी त्रुटि, शेष-परीक्षण (ट्रायल बैलन्स) द्वारा संसूचित नहीं होती है?
- श्री सिंह से की गई ₹1,000 की उधार खरीद गलती से श्री आकाश के खाते में जमा हो गई
- श्री संधु से की गई ₹20,000 की उधार खरीद गलती से रोजनामचे (दैनिक पंजी) में ₹2,000 के रूप में दर्ज हो गई
- एक अस्थायी शेड के स्थायी भवन में रूपांतरण को मरम्मत और रखरखाव व्यय के रूप में दर्ज कर लिया गया
- सहायक अभिलेख बही से खाताबही में दर्ज करने में हुई त्रुटि
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- Capital reserves are normally created out of free or distributable profits.
- Dividend equalization reserve is an example of general reserve.
- General reserve can be used only for some specific purposes.
- ‘Provision’ is a charge against profit.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही है?
- पूँजी आरक्षित निधियाँ सामान्यतः मुक्त या वितरणीय लाभों से सृजित होती हैं।
- लाभांश समकारी आरक्षित निधि, सामान्य आरक्षित निधि का एक उदाहरण है।
- सामान्य आरक्षित निधि का केवल किन्हीं विशेष प्रयोजनों के लिए ही उपयोग किया जा सकता है।
- ‘प्रावधान’, लाभ के विरुद्ध प्रभार है।
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following is not an error of commission?
- Overcasting of sales book
- Credit sales to Ramesh ₹5,000 credited to his account
- Wrong balancing of machinery account
- Cash sales not recorded in cash book
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक, लेख-त्रुटि नहीं है?
- विक्रय बही में अधिक दिखाना
- रमेश को उधार बिक्री ₹5,000, उसके खाते में जमा किया गया
- मशीनरी लेखा का गलत शेष निकालना
- नकद बिक्री, रोकड़ बही में दर्ज नहीं की गई
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following operators connects a structure variable and its element?
- Dot operator
- Plus operator
- Minus operator
- Multiply operator
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा प्रचालक (ऑपरेटर), संरचना चर (स्ट्रक्चर वैरिएबल) और इसके अवयव (एलिमेंट) को जोड़ता है?
- डॉट ऑपरेटर
- प्लस ऑपरेटर
- माइनस ऑपरेटर
- मल्टिप्लाइ ऑपरेटर
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following is not a top-down language?
- C
- FORTRAN
- JAVA
- Pascal
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक, शीर्ष-पाद भाषा (टॉप-डाउन लैंग्वेज) नहीं है?
- C
- फोर्ट्रान (FORTRAN)
- जावा (JAVA)
- पास्कल (Pascal)
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following attributes is required for internal linking in HTML?
- Name
- Align
- Body
- Link
HTML में, आंतरिक शृंखलन (इंटरनल लिंकिंग) के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक गुण अपेक्षित है?
- नाम (Name)
- संरेखण (Align)
- काय (Body)
- शृंखला (Link)
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following types of operating systems is designed to respond to an event within a predetermined time?
- Embedded
- Real time
- Multiuser
- Synchronized
निम्नलिखित प्रकार के प्रचालन तंत्रों में से कौन-सा एक, किसी घटना के प्रति पूर्व-निर्धारित समय के अंदर अनुक्रिया देने के लिए अभिकल्पित है?
- अन्तःस्थापित (Embedded)
- सद्य (Real time)
- बहु-उपयोक्ता (Multiuser)
- तुल्यकालिक (Synchronized)
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 5A6D?
- 23149
- 23148
- 23147
- 13149
षोडश आधारी संख्या 5A6D का दशमलव तुल्यांक क्या है?
- 23149
- 23148
- 23147
- 13149
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Two lenses of powers +2.0 D and –2.5 D are combined to make an optical instrument. The combination will
- act as a convex lens
- act as a concave lens
- act as a simple mirror
- not form any image
+2.0 D और –2.5 D शक्तियों के दो लेंस संयोजित कर एक प्रकाशिक यंत्र बनाया गया है। यह संयोजन
- उत्तल लेंस की तरह कार्य करेगा
- अवतल लेंस की तरह कार्य करेगा
- साधारण दर्पण की तरह कार्य करेगा
- कोई प्रतिबिंब नहीं बनाएगा
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
For an inelastic collision between two objects, which one among the following statements is correct?
- The kinetic energy remains conserved, but not the momentum.
- The momentum remains conserved, but not the kinetic energy.
- Both the kinetic energy and the momentum remain conserved.
- Neither the kinetic energy nor the momentum remains conserved.
दो वस्तुओं के बीच अप्रत्यास्थ संघट्ट के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही है?
- गतिज ऊर्जा संरक्षित रहेगी, लेकिन संवेग नहीं।
- संवेग संरक्षित रहेगा, लेकिन गतिज ऊर्जा नहीं।
- गतिज ऊर्जा और संवेग दोनों संरक्षित रहेंगे।
- न तो गतिज ऊर्जा और न ही संवेग संरक्षित रहेगा।
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
A train starting from rest with a uniform acceleration attains a speed of 108 km/h in 5 minutes. The distance covered by the train in attaining the speed is
- 9000 m
- 4500 m
- 355 m
- 108 m
कोई रेलगाड़ी विश्राम स्थिति से एकसमान त्वरण से चलकर 5 मिनट में 108 किलोमीटर/घंटा की चाल प्राप्त कर लेती है। इस चाल को प्राप्त करने में उस रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गई दूरी क्या है?
- 9000 मीटर
- 4500 मीटर
- 355 मीटर
- 108 मीटर
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
An object is placed in front of a concave mirror at infinity. Which one of the following is correct for its image?
- A real and inverted image would be formed at the focal point.
- A virtual and inverted image would be formed at the focal point.
- A real and erect image would be formed at infinity.
- A virtual and erect image would be formed at the focal point.
एक वस्तु अवतल दर्पण के सामने अनंत पर रखी हुई है। इसके प्रतिबिंब के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
- फोकस बिंदु पर एक वास्तविक और प्रतिलोमित प्रतिबिंब बनेगा।
- फोकस बिंदु पर एक आभासी और प्रतिलोमित प्रतिबिंब बनेगा।
- अनंत पर एक वास्तविक और सीधा (ऊर्ध्वशीर्षी) प्रतिबिंब बनेगा।
- फोकस बिंदु पर एक आभासी और सीधा प्रतिबिंब बनेगा।
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The main cause of ocean acidification is
- carbon dioxide
- carbon monoxide
- hydrogen sulfide
- chlorofluorocarbon
महासागरों के अम्लीभवन का मुख्य कारण क्या है?
- कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
- कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड
- हाइड्रोजन सल्फाइड
- क्लोरोफ्लुओरोकार्बन
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements regarding the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are not correct? 1. It is a discretionary power and does not entail the advice of the Ministers. 2. The Ordinance-making power of the Governor is confined to subjects in all the three Lists of Schedule VII. 3. With regard to repugnancy with a Union Law relating to the concurrent subjects, the Governor's Ordinance will prevail notwithstanding repugnancy, if the Ordinance had been made in pursuance of ‘instructions’ of the President of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
राज्यपाल की अध्यादेश बनाने की शक्ति के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही नहीं है/हैं? 1. यह एक विवेकाधिकार शक्ति है और इसके लिए मंत्रियों की सलाह आवश्यक नहीं है। 2. राज्यपाल की अध्यादेश बनाने की शक्ति, अनुसूची VII की सभी तीन सूचियों के विषयों तक सीमित है। 3. समवर्ती विषयों से संबंधित संघ की विधि के विरुद्ध होने के मामले में, राज्यपाल का अध्यादेश इस विरुद्धता के बावजूद अभिभावी होगा, यदि अध्यादेश भारत के राष्ट्रपति के ‘अनुदेश’ के अनुसरण में बनाया गया है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1 और 2
- 1, 2 और 3
- केवल 2 और 3
- केवल 3
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements about curative petition is/are correct? 1. It can be entertained by the Supreme Court of India only. 2. It can be entertained by the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of India. 3. Certification by a Senior Advocate is necessary to file a curative petition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
उपचारात्मक याचिका (क्यूरेटिव पिटीशन) के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. इस पर केवल भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय में विचार हो सकता है। 2. इस पर भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय और उच्च न्यायालयों में विचार हो सकता है। 3. उपचारात्मक याचिका दायर करने के लिए किसी वरिष्ठ अधिवक्ता द्वारा प्रमाणन आवश्यक है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 3
- 2 और 3
- 1 और 3
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Department of Economic Affairs is a nodal agency of the Government of India to formulate and monitor the country's economic policies and programmes that have a bearing on the domestic and international aspects of economic management. 2. The principal responsibility of the Department of Economic Affairs is the preparation and presentation of the Union Budget (including the Railway Budget) before the Parliament, and the Budgets for Union Territories and States under the President's Rule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 1. आर्थिक मामलों का विभाग, देश की आर्थिक नीतियों और कार्यक्रमों के, जो आर्थिक प्रबंधन के देशी और अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पहलुओं को प्रभावित करते हैं, निरूपण और मॉनीटरन के लिए भारत सरकार की एक नोडल एजेंसी है। 2. आर्थिक मामलों के विभाग का प्रमुख दायित्व केन्द्रीय बजट (रेल बजट समेत) तैयार करना और उसे संसद के समक्ष प्रस्तुत करना, तथा केन्द्रशासित क्षेत्रों और राष्ट्रपति शासन के अधीन राज्यों के लिए बजट तैयार करना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committee is/are correct? 1. In case of the District Planning Committee, at least 4/5th of the members shall be elected by the elected members of the district level Panchayat and of the Municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Their proportion would be in accordance with the ratio of urban to rural population of the district. 2. In case of the Metropolitan Planning Committee, at least 2/3rd of the members of the committee shall be elected by the elected members of the Municipalities and the Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area from amongst themselves. The proportion of the seats to be shared by them would be based on the ratio of the population of the Municipalities and of the Panchayats in the area. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन जिला योजना समिति और महानगर योजना समिति के बारे में सही है/हैं? 1. जिला योजना समिति के मामले में, कम-से-कम 4/5 सदस्य जिला स्तर पर पंचायत के और जिले में नगरपालिकाओं के निर्वाचित सदस्यों द्वारा, अपने में से निर्वाचित होंगे। उनका अनुपात जिले में नगरीय क्षेत्रों की और ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों की जनसंख्या के अनुपात के अनुसार होगा। 2. महानगर योजना समिति के मामले में, समिति के कम-से-कम 2/3 सदस्य महानगर क्षेत्र में नगरपालिकाओं के निर्वाचित सदस्यों और पंचायतों के अध्यक्षों द्वारा, अपने में से निर्वाचित किए जाएँगे। उनकी सीटों के अंश का अनुपात उस क्षेत्र में नगरपालिकाओं की और पंचायतों की जनसंख्या के अनुपात पर आधारित होगा। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following are the major objectives of setting up of Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)? 1. To foster innovations and entrepreneurship 2. To promote affordable innovations in key social sectors 3. To empower startups and small and medium enterprises 4. To encourage young investigators for entrepreneurial and managerial development in SMEs in biotechnology Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से, बायोटेक्नोलॉजी इंडस्ट्री रिसर्च असिस्टेंस काउंसिल (BIRAC) की स्थापना के प्रमुख उद्देश्य हैं? 1. नवोन्मेष तथा उद्यमशीलता को बढ़ाना 2. प्रमुख सामाजिक क्षेत्रों में किफायती नवोन्मेष को बढ़ावा देना 3. स्टार्ट-अप तथा छोटे और मध्यम उद्यमों को मजबूती प्रदान करना 4. युवा खोजकर्ताओं को जैव प्रौद्योगिकी में एस॰ एम॰ ई॰ की उद्यमशीलता और प्रबंधकीय विकास के लिए बढ़ावा देना नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1, 2 और 3
- केवल 1 और 4
- केवल 2, 3 और 4
- 1, 2, 3 और 4
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following recommended that the public health expenditure of the Union and State Governments together should be increased in a progressive manner to reach 2.5 percent of GDP by the year 2025?
- The National Commission on Macroeconomics and Health, 2005
- The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health, 2022
- The Fifteenth Finance Commission
- The Kasturirangan Committee
निम्नलिखित में से किसने यह सिफारिश की कि संघ और राज्य सरकारों के लोक स्वास्थ्य व्यय साथ-साथ इस प्रगामी रीति से बढ़ाए जाने चाहिए ताकि ये वर्ष 2025 तक सकल घरेलू उत्पाद के 2.5 प्रतिशत तक पहुँच जाएँ?
- समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र (मैक्रोइकोनॉमिक्स) एवं स्वास्थ्य पर राष्ट्रीय आयोग, 2005
- स्वास्थ्य पर संसदीय स्थायी समिति, 2022
- पंद्रहवाँ वित्त आयोग
- कस्तूरीरंगन समिति
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Kautilya in his Arthashastra describes the availability of varieties of pearls from the
- Madura region hills
- Shravanabelagola hills
- Tamraparni river in the Pandyan Kingdom
- Kaveri river in the Palakkad region
कौटिल्य ने अपने अर्थशास्त्र में मोतियों की किस्मों की कहाँ से उपलब्धता का वर्णन किया है?
- मदुरा क्षेत्र की पहाड़ियाँ
- श्रवणबेलगोला पहाड़ियाँ
- पांड्य राज की ताम्रपर्णी नदी
- पलक्कड़ क्षेत्र की कावेरी नदी
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following pairs of Dynasty and King of the Vijayanagara Empire is not correctly matched?
- Sangama Dynasty—Harihara II
- Saluva Dynasty—Timma
- Aravidu Dynasty—Tirumala
- Tuluva Dynasty—Gunda
विजयनगर साम्राज्य के राजवंश और राजाओं के निम्नलिखित युग्मों में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?
- संगम राजवंश : हरिहर II
- सलुवा राजवंश : तिम्मा
- अराविदु राजवंश : तिरुमल
- तुलुव राजवंश : गुंडा
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
‘Vengi’, the capital city of the Eastern Chalukyas, is identified with which one of the following places?
- Peddavegi
- Erumaiyur
- Salihundam
- Bhattiprolu
पूर्वी चालुक्यों की राजधानी ‘वेंगी’ को निम्नलिखित में से किस एक स्थान से पहचाना जाता है?
- पेड्डावेगी
- एरुमैयूर
- सालिहुन्डम
- भट्टीप्रोलू
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Who among the following was the first elected King of the Pala Dynasty in Kamarupa?
- Govindapala
- Dharmapala
- Brahmapala
- Jayapala
इनमें से कौन कामरूप के पाल राजवंश का पहला निर्वाचित राजा था?
- गोविन्दपाल
- धर्मपाल
- ब्रह्मपाल
- जयपाल
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Freedom fighter Agadhu Samantra (Orissa) served the British-Indian Army. Later on he left the British service to join the Indian National Army (INA) in 1942. Where was he deputed by INA as a Naik in the First Bahadur Group?
- Andaman-Nicobar
- Burma Front
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Assam
स्वतंत्रता सेनानी अगधु सामंत्रा (उड़ीसा) ने ब्रिटिश-भारतीय सेना में काम किया। बाद में वे ब्रिटिश सेवा छोड़कर 1942 में आज़ाद हिन्द फौज (INA) में सम्मिलित हो गए। उनको INA द्वारा प्रथम बहादुर ग्रुप में नायक के रूप में कहाँ तैनात किया गया था?
- अंदमान-निकोबार
- बर्मा फ्रंट
- अरुणाचल प्रदेश
- असम
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Central Trade Union Federation) A. Centre of Indian Trade Unions B. Indian National Trade Union Congress C. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh D. All India Trade Union Congress List-II (Political Party) 1. Indian National Congress 2. Bharatiya Janata Party 3. Communist Party of India 4. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
- A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
- A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : सूची-I (सेंट्रल ट्रेड यूनियन फेडरेशन) A. सेंटर ऑफ इंडियन ट्रेड यूनियन्स B. इंडियन नैशनल ट्रेड यूनियन काँग्रेस C. भारतीय मजदूर संघ D. ऑल इंडिया ट्रेड यूनियन काँग्रेस सूची-II (राजनीतिक दल) 1. भारतीय राष्ट्रीय काँग्रेस 2. भारतीय जनता पार्टी 3. भारतीय कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी 4. भारतीय कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी (मार्क्सवादी)
- A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
- A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The provision for constituting an ‘Expert Committee’ finds place under which one among the following legislations?
- The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
- The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
- The Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
- The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
‘विशेषज्ञ समिति’ गठित करने हेतु उपबंध निम्नलिखित में से किस अधिनियम में है?
- बालक और कुमार श्रम (प्रतिषेध और विनियमन) अधिनियम, 1986
- ठेका श्रम (विनियमन और उत्सादन) अधिनियम, 1970
- भवन और अन्य सन्निर्माण कर्मकार (नियोजन तथा सेवाशर्त विनियमन) अधिनियम, 1996
- अंतर-राज्य प्रवासी कामगार (रोजगार और सेवा की शर्तों का विनियमन) अधिनियम, 1979
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following is provided under the Third Schedule of the Factories Act, 1948?
- List of Occupational Hazards
- List of Occupational Diseases
- List of Notifiable Diseases
- List of Industries Involving Hazardous Processes
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक, कारखाना अधिनियम, 1948 की तीसरी अनुसूची के अधीन उपबंधित है?
- उपजीविकाजन्य परिसंकटों की सूची
- उपजीविकाजन्य रोगों की सूची
- अधिसूचनीय रोगों की सूची
- परिसंकटमय प्रक्रियाओं वाले उद्योगों की सूची
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Under the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952, the Special Officer can enter a mine for the purpose of surveying, levelling and measuring, after giving prior notice to the Manager at least how many days in advance?
- Three days
- Five days
- Seven days
- Fourteen days
खान अधिनियम, 1952 के उपबंधों के अधीन विशेष अधिकारी, प्रबंधक को अग्रिम में कम-से-कम कितने दिनों की पूर्वसूचना देकर सर्वेक्षण, तलमापन और माप के प्रयोजन से खान में प्रवेश कर सकता है?
- तीन दिन
- पाँच दिन
- सात दिन
- चौदह दिन
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, every employer of an establishment has to maintain the registers and records regarding the wages paid and deductions made, if any, from the wages, and preserve the same from the date of last entry for a period of
- five years
- seven years
- two years
- three years
मजदूरी संदाय अधिनियम, 1936 के उपबंधों के अधीन किसी स्थापन का प्रत्येक नियोजक भुगतान की गई मजदूरियों और मजदूरियों में से की गई कटौतियों, यदि कोई हो, के रजिस्टर और अभिलेख रखेगा, तथा इन्हें अंतिम प्रविष्टि की तारीख से कितनी अवधि तक के लिए परिरक्षित करेगा?
- पाँच वर्ष
- सात वर्ष
- दो वर्ष
- तीन वर्ष
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
There are seven hemispherical containers of radius R metres each and each of them is fully filled with water. The water in these is transferred to a hemispherical container of radius equal to 1.5 times of R such that a maximum number of smaller containers get emptied out. How many smaller containers remain fully filled when the larger container gets fully filled?
- 5
- 4
- 3
- 2
प्रत्येक R मीटर त्रिज्या वाले सात अर्धगोलाकार पात्र हैं और उनमें से प्रत्येक पात्र जल से पूरा भरा है। इनका जल R की 1.5 गुनी त्रिज्या के एक अर्धगोलाकार पात्र में इस प्रकार पलटा जाता है कि अधिकतम संख्या में छोटे पात्र खाली हो जाते हैं। जब बड़ा पात्र पूरी तरह भर गया हो, तो कितने छोटे पात्र अभी भी पूरे भरे हुए हैं?
- 5
- 4
- 3
- 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
What is the length of the radius of the circle that passes through the points (0, 0), (0, 3) and (2, 0)?
- 2√3
- 2√5
- √11/2
- √13/2
बिन्दुओं (0, 0), (0, 3) और (2, 0) से गुजरने वाले वृत्त की त्रिज्या की लंबाई क्या है?
- 2√3
- 2√5
- √11/2
- √13/2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Suppose that x and y are distinct variables that take values from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. What is the probability that the value of the expression xy + x + y is even?
- 1/2
- 1/3
- 1/4
- 1/5
मान लीजिए कि x और y भिन्न चर हैं, जो {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} से मान प्राप्त करते हैं। व्यंजक xy + x + y के मान के सम होने की प्रायिकता क्या है?
- 1/2
- 1/3
- 1/4
- 1/5
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Suppose that a, b > 0. If the equation x² + ax + b = 0 has real roots, namely α and β, then which one of the following is correct?
- α, β > 0
- If α > 0, then β < 0
- α, β < 0
- −1 < α/β < 1
मान लीजिए कि a, b > 0 है। यदि समीकरण x² + ax + b = 0 के वास्तविक मूल नामतः α और β हों, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
- α, β > 0
- यदि α > 0, तो β < 0
- α, β < 0
- −1 < α/β < 1
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The ages of Mr. Kumar and his son are in the ratio 5:3. Fifteen years back this ratio was 2:1. What was the age (in years) of Mr. Kumar when his son was born?
- 30
- 35
- 40
- 45
श्री कुमार और उनके पुत्र की आयु 5:3 के अनुपात में है। पंद्रह वर्ष पूर्व यह अनुपात 2:1 था। अपने पुत्र के जन्म लेने के समय श्री कुमार की आयु (वर्ष में) क्या थी?
- 30
- 35
- 40
- 45
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
In a business firm, assets of the business are valued on the basis of their intrinsic value rather than realizable value. This accounting is based on
- money measurement concept
- matching concept
- going concern assumption
- consistency principle
किसी व्यावसायिक प्रतिष्ठान में, व्यवसाय की परिसंपत्तियों का मूल्य उनके प्राप्य मूल्य के बजाय उनके यथार्थ मूल्य से लगाया जाता है। यह लेखाकरण किस पर आधारित है?
- मुद्रा-मापन संकल्पना
- सुमेलन संकल्पना
- सतत व्यापार पूर्वधारणा
- समनुरूपता सिद्धांत
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Following is the Trial Balance of a firm as on 31-12-2022 :
₹ ₹ Trade receivables 25,00,000 Provision for doubtful debts 1,40,000 Bad debts 40,000 The additional bad debts during the year are ₹2,00,000. The firm has a policy of maintaining a provision for doubtful debts equal to 10% of the trade receivables' balances. The total amount to be charged to Profit and Loss A/c (for the year ending 31-12-2022) for bad debts written off and provision created will be
- ₹2,50,000
- ₹1,30,000
- ₹90,000
- ₹3,30,000
नीचे एक फर्म के 31-12-2022 को यथास्थिति का शेष-परीक्षण दिखाया गया है :
₹ ₹ व्यापार प्राप्य 25,00,000 संदिग्ध ऋणों के लिए प्रावधान 1,40,000 अशोध्य ऋण 40,000 वर्ष के दौरान अतिरिक्त अशोध्य ऋण ₹2,00,000 है। इस फर्म की नीति, व्यापार प्राप्य शेष के 10% के बराबर संदिग्ध ऋण के लिए प्रावधान करने की है। लाभ और हानि लेखा (31-12-2022 को समाप्त वर्ष के लिए) में अपलिखित अशोध्य ऋण एवं किए गए प्रावधान के लिए प्रभारित की जाने वाली कुल राशि कितनी होगी?
- ₹2,50,000
- ₹1,30,000
- ₹90,000
- ₹3,30,000
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following is not a major consideration in the selection and application of accounting policies?
- Prudence
- Consistency
- Substance over form
- Materiality
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, लेखाकरण नीतियों के चयन और अनुप्रयोग में प्रमुख विचार-बिंदु नहीं है?
- विवेक
- समनुरूपता
- प्ररूप के बजाय सार
- सारता
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Consider the following information :
Date Particulars Units Rate per unit (in ₹) Jan. 1 Inventory in hand 200 7 Jan. 8 Purchases 1100 8 Jan. 25 Purchases 300 9 Jan. 6 Issued for sale 100 — Jan. 9 Issued for sale 200 — Which one of the following is the value of inventory on January 31 under perpetual inventory system using Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) method?
- ₹6,600
- ₹8,600
- ₹10,600
- ₹12,000
निम्नलिखित सूचनाओं पर विचार कीजिए :
तिथि विवरण यूनिट प्रति यूनिट दर (₹ में) 1 जनवरी हस्ते मालसूची 200 7 8 जनवरी क्रय 1100 8 25 जनवरी क्रय 300 9 6 जनवरी विक्रय के लिए जारी 100 — 9 जनवरी विक्रय के लिए जारी 200 — 31 जनवरी को अंतिम-आवक-प्रथम-जावक (LIFO) पद्धति का प्रयोग कर चिरस्थायी मालसूची प्रणाली के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक, मालसूची का मूल्य है?
- ₹6,600
- ₹8,600
- ₹10,600
- ₹12,000
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following is not a capital expenditure?
- ₹5,000 spent to remove a worn-out part. This part needs to be replaced with a new engine
- Expenses on foreign tour for purchasing a new machine
- Freight and insurance of the machinery purchased
- Amount spent on repairing a secondhand machine before put to use
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, पूँजीगत व्यय नहीं है?
- किसी घिसे-पिटे पुर्जे को निकालने में हुआ व्यय ₹5,000 है। इस पुर्जे को निकालकर नया इंजिन लगाना है
- नई मशीन खरीदने के लिए विदेश यात्रा पर हुआ व्यय
- खरीदी गई मशीनरी का मालभाड़ा और बीमा
- किसी सेकंडहैंड मशीन को खरीदकर उसके उपयोग से पहले उसकी मरम्मत पर व्यय की गई राशि
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following is not a correct IP address?
- 201.54.122.107
- 102.45.221.710
- 102.45.201.22
- 250.234.123.124
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक, सही IP ऐड्रेस नहीं है?
- 201.54.122.107
- 102.45.221.710
- 102.45.201.22
- 250.234.123.124
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
In mesh topology, if we have six computers, how many links must be there?
- 6
- 12
- 13
- 15
जाल सांस्थितिकी (मेश टोपोलॉजी) में, यदि हमारे पास छः कम्प्यूटर हैं, तो कितने लिंक होने आवश्यक हैं?
- 6
- 12
- 13
- 15
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The binary equivalent of the octal number 473 is
- 100111011
- 100111111
- 110111011
- 110001011
अष्टाधारी संख्या 473 की द्वि-आधारी समतुल्य संख्या क्या है?
- 100111011
- 100111111
- 110111011
- 110001011
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one among the following commands is used to check the error status of hard disk drive?
- CHKDK
- CHECKDISK
- CHKDSK
- DSKCHK
हार्ड डिस्क ड्राइव की त्रुटि स्थिति की जाँच के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कमांड प्रयुक्त होता है?
- CHKDK
- CHECKDISK
- CHKDSK
- DSKCHK
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following registers contains the address of the next location in the memory to be accessed?
- IR
- MAR
- MBR
- DR
निम्नलिखित में से किस रजिस्टर में, अभिगम की जाने वाली मेमोरी में अगले स्थान का पता होता है?
- IR
- MAR
- MBR
- DR
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The effluents of which among the following industries are considered to be the main cause for lowering the pH value of river water?
- Alcohol distillery industries
- Plastic cup manufacturing industries
- Soap and detergent industries
- Lead battery manufacturing industries
निम्नलिखित में से किस एक उद्योग के बहिःस्राव, नदी जल के pH मान को कम करने के मुख्य कारण माने जाते हैं?
- अल्कोहल डिस्टिलरी उद्योग
- प्लास्टिक कप विनिर्माण उद्योग
- साबुन एवं डिटर्जेंट उद्योग
- सीसा (लेड) बैटरी विनिर्माण उद्योग
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Which one of the following is not a soap?
- Sodium stearate
- Sodium palmate
- Sodium benzoate
- Sodium oleate
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक साबुन नहीं है?
- सोडियम स्टीयरेट
- सोडियम पामेट
- सोडियम बेंजोएट
- सोडियम ओलिएट
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The human eyeball is composed of three layers. The correct sequence of the layers from exterior to interior is
- Sclera → Choroid → Retina
- Cornea → Choroid → Retina
- Cornea → Sclera → Choroid
- Sclera → Cornea → Choroid
मनुष्य का अक्षि-गोलक तीन परतों का बना है। बाहर से भीतर की ओर परतों का सही अनुक्रम क्या है?
- श्वेतपटल → रक्तक पटल → दृष्टिपटल
- स्वच्छमंडल → रक्तक पटल → दृष्टिपटल
- स्वच्छमंडल → श्वेतपटल → रक्तक पटल
- श्वेतपटल → स्वच्छमंडल → रक्तक पटल
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Consider the following reaction : 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) Which one of the following statements about the reaction given above is correct?
- The oxidation state of hydrogen increases while that of oxygen decreases.
- The oxidation state of hydrogen decreases while that of oxygen increases.
- There is no change in the oxidation state of hydrogen as well as that of oxygen.
- During the reaction, hydrogen is reduced while oxygen is oxidized.
निम्नलिखित अभिक्रिया पर विचार कीजिए : 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) ऊपर दी गई अभिक्रिया के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही है?
- हाइड्रोजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था बढ़ती है जबकि ऑक्सीजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था घटती है।
- हाइड्रोजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था घटती है जबकि ऑक्सीजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था बढ़ती है।
- हाइड्रोजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था और साथ ही ऑक्सीजन की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता।
- अभिक्रिया के दौरान हाइड्रोजन अपचयित होता है जबकि ऑक्सीजन उपचयित (ऑक्सीकृत) होती है।
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The pillar-like structures which hang vertically downward from the aerial branches found in banyan tree are known as
- tap roots
- climbing roots
- fibrous roots
- prop roots
बरगद के वृक्ष में उसकी वायव (एरियल) शाखाओं से ऊर्ध्वाधर नीचे की ओर लटकी स्तंभ-जैसी संरचनाओं को क्या कहते हैं?
- मूसला जड़ (टैप रूट)
- आरोही मूल (क्लाइंबिंग रूट)
- झकड़ा जड़ (फाइब्रस रूट)
- अवस्तंभ मूल (प्रॉप रूट)
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Which of the following was/were recommended by the Thungon Committee in respect of ‘local governments’ in India? 1. Constitutional status 2. Three-year term Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
भारत में ‘स्थानीय शासन’ के बारे में, थुंगन समिति ने निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संस्तुति/संस्तुतियाँ की थी/थीं? 1. सांविधानिक दर्जा 2. तीन वर्षों का कार्यकाल नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
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‘eSanjeevani’, a scheme of the Government of India, serves which one among the following objectives?
- Creates a database of people affected by COVID-19
- Promotes the use of telemedicine
- Establishes an electronic National Clinical Registry
- Efficient promotion of health advisories
भारत सरकार की एक योजना ‘ई-संजीवनी’, निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रयोजन के लिए कार्यरत है?
- कोविड-19 से प्रभावित व्यक्तियों का आँकड़ा-संचय तैयार करना
- दूरचिकित्सा (टेलीमेडिसिन) के उपयोग को बढ़ावा देना
- एक इलेक्ट्रॉनिक राष्ट्रीय क्लिनिकल रजिस्ट्री स्थापित करना
- स्वास्थ्य देखभाल सिफारिशों को सशक्त रूप से बढ़ावा देना
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements about recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission is/are correct? 1. Basic (untied) grants can be used by rural local bodies for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects enshrined in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India except for salaries and other establishment costs. 2. Tied grants can be used for basic services of sanitation and maintenance of ODF status, management and treatment of household waste and human excreta. 3. It recommended ‘Health Grants’ to create diagnostic infrastructure in primary health care facilities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
15वें वित्त आयोग की सिफारिशों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. मूलभूत (निर्बंध) अनुदानों का उपयोग भारत के संविधान की ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची में प्रतिष्ठापित 29 विषयों के अंतर्गत स्थान-विशेष की आवश्यकताओं से संबंधित ग्रामीण स्थानीय निकायों द्वारा वेतन और अन्य स्थापना लागतों के अतिरिक्त किया जा सकता है। 2. बंध अनुदानों का उपयोग स्वच्छता और ओ॰ डी॰ एफ॰ दर्जा बरकरार रखने, घरेलू अपशिष्ट पदार्थों और मल-मूत्र का प्रबंधन तथा उपचार करने की मूलभूत सेवाओं के लिए किया जा सकता है। 3. प्राथमिक स्वास्थ्य देखभाल सुविधाओं में नैदानिक अवसंरचना तैयार करने के लिए ‘स्वास्थ्य अनुदानों’ की सिफारिश की गई है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2 और 3
- केवल 1 और 3
- 1, 2 और 3
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Which of the following statements about the functions of the State Finance Commission is/are correct? 1. It reviews the financial position of the local governments in the State. 2. It reviews the distribution of revenue between rural and urban local governments. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
राज्य वित्त आयोग के कार्यों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. यह आयोग राज्य में मौजूद स्थानीय शासन संस्थाओं की आर्थिक स्थिति की समीक्षा करता है। 2. यह आयोग ग्रामीण और शहरी स्थानीय शासन संस्थाओं के बीच राजस्व के बँटवारे का पुनरावलोकन करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
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CAMPA fund is regulated by which one of the following Ministries?
- The Ministry of Home Affairs
- The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- The Ministry of Defence
CAMPA निधि, निम्नलिखित में से किस मंत्रालय द्वारा विनियमित होती है?
- गृह मंत्रालय
- कृषि एवं किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय
- पर्यावरण, वन एवं जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय
- रक्षा मंत्रालय
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An employee working in an establishment draws a monthly wage of ₹9,000 as fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 and is eligible to get bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 for the accounting year 2021–22. The bonus payable is at the rate of 10%. If the employee has worked continuously for whole of the said accounting year, then what is the amount of bonus that shall be paid to the employee?
- ₹7,000
- ₹8,400
- ₹10,000
- ₹10,800
किसी स्थापन में कार्यरत कोई कामगार न्यूनतम मजदूरी अधिनियम, 1948 के अधीन नियत मासिक मजदूरी ₹9,000 पाता है और बोनस भुगतान अधिनियम, 1965 के अधीन लेखाकरण वर्ष 2021–22 के लिए बोनस पाने के लिए अर्ह है। देय बोनस 10% की दर से है। यदि उस कामगार ने उक्त पूरे लेखाकरण वर्ष में लगातार काम किया है, तो उस कामगार को कितनी बोनस राशि का भुगतान किया जाएगा?
- ₹7,000
- ₹8,400
- ₹10,000
- ₹10,800
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following statements relating to conclusion of conciliation proceedings under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?
- It is concluded on the date when a memorandum of settlement is signed by the parties.
- It is concluded on the date when it ends in failure resulting in no memorandum of settlement signed between the parties.
- It is concluded on the date when the report of the Conciliation Officer is received by the Appropriate Government when no settlement is arrived.
- It is concluded on the date when the reference is made by the Appropriate Government to the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal under Section 10 of the Act during pendency of the conciliation proceedings.
औद्योगिक विवाद अधिनियम, 1947 के अधीन सुलह कार्यवाही की समाप्ति के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही नहीं है?
- यह उस तिथि को समाप्त होता है, जिस दिन पक्षकारों द्वारा समझौता ज्ञापन पर हस्ताक्षर किए जाते हैं।
- यह उस तिथि को समाप्त होता है, जिस दिन यह विफल हो जाता है, परिणामस्वरूप पक्षकारों के बीच किसी समझौता ज्ञापन पर हस्ताक्षर नहीं किए जाते।
- यह उस तिथि को समाप्त होता है, जिस दिन, कोई समझौता नहीं हो पाने की स्थिति में, सुलह अधिकारी की रिपोर्ट समुचित सरकार को प्राप्त हो जाती है।
- यह उस तिथि को समाप्त होता है, जिस दिन, सुलह कार्यवाहियों के लंबित रहने के दौरान, इस अधिनियम की धारा 10 के अधीन कोई निर्देश समुचित सरकार द्वारा श्रम न्यायालय/औद्योगिक अधिकरण को किया जाता है।
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The provision for disability compensations for the person, who is declared unfit after medical examination and for whom no alternate employment is possible, finds place under which one of the following legislations?
- The Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
- The Factories Act, 1948
- The Mines Act, 1952
- The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
जिस व्यक्ति को चिकित्सा परीक्षा के बाद अनुपयुक्त घोषित कर दिया जाता है और जिसके लिए कोई वैकल्पिक नियोजन संभव नहीं है, उस व्यक्ति के लिए अशक्तता प्रतिकर का प्रावधान निम्नलिखित में से किस अधिनियम में है?
- भवन और अन्य सन्निर्माण कर्मकार (नियोजन तथा सेवाशर्त विनियमन) अधिनियम, 1996
- कारखाना अधिनियम, 1948
- खान अधिनियम, 1952
- बागान श्रम अधिनियम, 1951
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Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits employment of children in factory or mine or any other hazardous employment?
- Article 19
- Article 21
- Article 23
- Article 24
भारत के संविधान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद, कारखाने या खान या किसी अन्य परिसंकटमय नियोजन में बालकों के नियोजन को प्रतिषिद्ध करता है?
- अनुच्छेद 19
- अनुच्छेद 21
- अनुच्छेद 23
- अनुच्छेद 24
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Article 43 of the Constitution of India enjoins the State to endeavour through legislation or economic organization for payment of which of the following wages?
- Living wage
- Minimum wage
- Fair wage
- Need-based minimum wage
निम्नलिखित में से किस मजदूरी का, विधान या आर्थिक संगठन के माध्यम से प्रयास कर, भुगतान करने के लिए भारत के संविधान का अनुच्छेद 43 राज्य को आदेश देता है?
- निर्वाह मजदूरी
- न्यूनतम मजदूरी
- उचित मजदूरी
- आवश्यकता-आधारित न्यूनतम मजदूरी
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Container X contains a mixture of oil and water in the ratio 1:3, whereas container Y contains a mixture of oil and water in the ratio 2:3. If 2 litres of liquid from container X and 5 litres of liquid from container Y are mixed together in container Z that initially contains 1 litre of pure oil, then what is the percentage of oil in container Z?
- 41.25
- 42.75
- 43.75
- 44.25
एक पात्र X में, तेल और पानी का मिश्रण 1 : 3 के अनुपात में है, जबकि पात्र Y में तेल और पानी का मिश्रण 2 : 3 के अनुपात में है। यदि पात्र X में से 2 लीटर द्रव और पात्र Y में से 5 लीटर द्रव को पात्र Z में, जिसमें पहले से 1 लीटर शुद्ध तेल है, एक साथ मिलाए जाएँ, तो पात्र Z में कितना प्रतिशत तेल है?
- 41.25
- 42.75
- 43.75
- 44.25
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A solid circular metallic disc of radius 12 inches and thickness 4 inches is melted and shaped into a solid disc of radius 16 inches. What is the thickness of the new disc in inches?
- 2
- 2.25
- 2.50
- 2.75
12 इंच त्रिज्या और 4 इंच मोटाई वाली किसी ठोस वृत्ताकार धात्विक चक्रिका (डिस्क) को पिघलाकर उससे 16 इंच त्रिज्या की एक ठोस चक्रिका बनाई जाती है। इस नई चक्रिका की मोटाई (इंच में) क्या है?
- 2
- 2.25
- 2.50
- 2.75
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Directions : The next three items are based on the following table which shows the earnings and profits (in rupees thousand crore) of four companies during 2016–2020 :
Company X Y Z W 2016 Earning 100 95 74 50 2016 Profit 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 Earning 120 94 77 58 2017 Profit 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 Earning 115 92 82 75 2018 Profit 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 Earning 125 90 85 80 2019 Profit 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 Earning 130 96 89 95 2020 Profit 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 How many of these companies' earnings increased by at least 20% in the year 2020 in comparison to the year 2016?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
निर्देश : अगले तीन प्रश्नांश नीचे दी गई सारणी पर आधारित हैं, जिसमें 2016–2020 के दौरान चार कंपनियों के अर्जन और लाभ, हज़ार करोड़ रुपए में, दिखाए गए हैं :
कंपनी X Y Z W 2016 अर्जन 100 95 74 50 2016 लाभ 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 अर्जन 120 94 77 58 2017 लाभ 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 अर्जन 115 92 82 75 2018 लाभ 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 अर्जन 125 90 85 80 2019 लाभ 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 अर्जन 130 96 89 95 2020 लाभ 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 कितनी कंपनियों का अर्जन, वर्ष 2016 की तुलना में, वर्ष 2020 में कम-से-कम 20% बढ़ा?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Directions : The next three items are based on the following table which shows the earnings and profits (in rupees thousand crore) of four companies during 2016–2020 :
Company X Y Z W 2016 Earning 100 95 74 50 2016 Profit 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 Earning 120 94 77 58 2017 Profit 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 Earning 115 92 82 75 2018 Profit 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 Earning 125 90 85 80 2019 Profit 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 Earning 130 96 89 95 2020 Profit 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 In 2020, the relative profit jump of which company was maximum over the previous year?
- X
- Y
- Z
- W
निर्देश : अगले तीन प्रश्नांश नीचे दी गई सारणी पर आधारित हैं, जिसमें 2016–2020 के दौरान चार कंपनियों के अर्जन और लाभ, हज़ार करोड़ रुपए में, दिखाए गए हैं :
कंपनी X Y Z W 2016 अर्जन 100 95 74 50 2016 लाभ 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 अर्जन 120 94 77 58 2017 लाभ 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 अर्जन 115 92 82 75 2018 लाभ 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 अर्जन 125 90 85 80 2019 लाभ 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 अर्जन 130 96 89 95 2020 लाभ 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 2020 में, किस कंपनी का आपेक्षिक लाभ उछाल पिछले वर्ष के मुकाबले अधिकतम था?
- X
- Y
- Z
- W
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Directions : The next three items are based on the following table which shows the earnings and profits (in rupees thousand crore) of four companies during 2016–2020 :
Company X Y Z W 2016 Earning 100 95 74 50 2016 Profit 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 Earning 120 94 77 58 2017 Profit 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 Earning 115 92 82 75 2018 Profit 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 Earning 125 90 85 80 2019 Profit 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 Earning 130 96 89 95 2020 Profit 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 In 2017, the absolute profit jump of which company was minimum over the previous year?
- X
- Y
- Z
- W
निर्देश : अगले तीन प्रश्नांश नीचे दी गई सारणी पर आधारित हैं, जिसमें 2016–2020 के दौरान चार कंपनियों के अर्जन और लाभ, हज़ार करोड़ रुपए में, दिखाए गए हैं :
कंपनी X Y Z W 2016 अर्जन 100 95 74 50 2016 लाभ 20.5 8.5 7.5 4 2017 अर्जन 120 94 77 58 2017 लाभ 22.4 9.5 8.8 5.5 2018 अर्जन 115 92 82 75 2018 लाभ 23.1 7.5 10.5 10.1 2019 अर्जन 125 90 85 80 2019 लाभ 20.7 5.5 12 12.5 2020 अर्जन 130 96 89 95 2020 लाभ 25.8 9.5 14 20.5 2017 में, किस कंपनी का निरपेक्ष लाभ उछाल पिछले वर्ष के मुकाबले न्यूनतम था?
- X
- Y
- Z
- W
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The value of long-term investment in shares is subject to wide fluctuations. A provision created against fluctuation in value of investments is based on the convention of
- conservatism
- full disclosure
- materiality
- consistency
शेयरों में दीर्घावधि निवेश के मूल्य में व्यापक घट-बढ़ होती है। निवेशों के मूल्य में घट-बढ़ के विरुद्ध किया गया प्रावधान किस परिपाटी पर आधारित है?
- रूढ़िवादिता
- पूर्ण प्रस्तुतीकरण
- सारता
- समनुरूपता
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following aspects is not covered in audit?
- Examination of the system of accounting and internal control
- Preparation of books of accounts
- Reporting to the appropriate person/body
- Verification of the authenticity and validity of transactions
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक पहलू लेखापरीक्षा में निहित नहीं है?
- लेखांकन प्रणाली और आंतरिक नियंत्रण की परीक्षा
- लेखा-बहियों को बनाना
- उपयुक्त व्यक्ति/निकाय को रिपोर्ट करना
- लेनदेन की प्रामाणिकता और वैधता का सत्यापन
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following sets the scope, timing and direction of the audit, and guides the development of the more detailed audit plan?
- Audit program
- Overall audit strategy
- Completion memorandum
- Audit plan
निम्नलिखित में से किससे, लेखापरीक्षा की परिधि, समय-निर्धारण और दिशा तय होती है तथा अधिक विस्तृत लेखापरीक्षा योजना के विकास के लिए दिशानिर्देश मिलता है?
- लेखापरीक्षा कार्यक्रम
- समग्र लेखापरीक्षा रणनीति
- समापन ज्ञापन
- लेखापरीक्षा योजना
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Goodwill Account is a/an
- Personal Account
- Real Account
- Nominal Account
- Expense Account
सुनाम लेखा क्या है?
- वैयक्तिक लेखा
- वस्तुगत लेखा
- आय-व्यय लेखा
- व्यय लेखा
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The principle of subrogation in insurance allows
- investment of policy amount
- refund for insured and insured's insurance company
- auto-renewal of policy
- indemnification of the insured
बीमा में प्रत्यासन-सिद्धांत (प्रिंसिपल ऑफ़ सब्रोगेशन) किसकी अनुमति देता है?
- पॉलिसी की राशि के निवेश की
- बीमादार और बीमादार की बीमा कंपनी के लिए रकम वापसी
- पॉलिसी का स्वतःनवीकरण
- बीमादार का क्षतिपूरण
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following expenditures are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India? 1. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable 2. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his/her office 3. The salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court 4. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 3 and 4 only
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-कौन से व्यय भारत की संचित निधि पर प्रभारित होते हैं? 1. ऋण प्रभार, जिनके लिए भारत सरकार दायी है 2. राष्ट्रपति की परिलब्धियाँ और भत्ते तथा उनके कार्यालय से संबंधित अन्य खर्च 3. उच्चतम न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों को देय या उनसे संबंधित वेतन, भत्ते और पेंशन 4. राज्य सभा के सभापति और उपसभापति तथा लोक सभा के अध्यक्ष और उपाध्यक्ष के वेतन और भत्ते नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1 और 2
- 1, 2, 3 और 4
- केवल 2, 3 और 4
- केवल 3 और 4
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Consider the following statements : 1. Population change in an area is an important indicator of economic development of that region. 2. Population change in an area is not an indicator of social upliftment of that region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 1. किसी क्षेत्र की जनसंख्या में परिवर्तन, उस क्षेत्र के आर्थिक विकास का महत्त्वपूर्ण संकेतक होता है। 2. किसी क्षेत्र की जनसंख्या में परिवर्तन, उस क्षेत्र के सामाजिक उत्थान का संकेतक नहीं होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one among the following statements regarding 'human development' is not correct?
- The basic concept of Income Approach to Human Development is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys.
- Basic Needs Approach to Human Development was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization (ILO).
- Human Poverty Index measures the shortfall in human development.
- Under the Welfare Approach to Human Development, the Government protects and promotes private entrepreneurs to maximize expenditure on welfare.
'मानव विकास' के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही नहीं है?
- मानव विकास के आय उपागम की आधारभूत संकल्पना यह है कि आय का स्तर व्यक्ति द्वारा उपभोग की जाने वाली स्वतंत्रता के स्तर को प्रतिबिंबित करता है।
- मानव विकास का मूल आवश्यकताओं का उपागम प्रारंभ में अंतर्राष्ट्रीय श्रम संगठन (ILO) द्वारा प्रस्तावित किया गया था।
- मानव गरीबी सूचकांक, मानव विकास की कमियों को मापता है।
- मानव विकास के कल्याण उपागम के अंतर्गत सरकार निजी उद्यमियों को कल्याण पर व्यय को अधिकतम करने के लिए संरक्षण और प्रोत्साहन देती है।
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements about globalization is/are correct? 1. It has fuelled the spread of trans-border currencies, digital cash and global credit cards. 2. Securities markets have gained a global dimension with the development of electronic round-the-world trading. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
वैश्वीकरण के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. इसके कारण मुद्राओं, डिजिटल रोकड़ और वैश्विक क्रेडिट कार्ड का सीमा-पार प्रसार अत्यधिक बढ़ गया है। 2. संपूर्ण विश्व में, इलेक्ट्रॉनिक व्यापार के विकास के साथ प्रतिभूति बाजारों ने एक वैश्विक आयाम प्राप्त कर लिया है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
As per FAOSTAT (Food and Agriculture Organization Corporate Statistical Database), which of the following is/are correct about India's milk production? 1. India ranked second in the world in milk production in the year 2021–22. 2. India contributed 24% of global milk production in the year 2021–22. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
FAOSTAT (फूड ऐंड ऐग्रीकल्चर ऑर्गनाइज़ेशन कॉरपोरेट स्टैटिस्टिकल डेटाबेस) के अनुसार, भारत के दुग्ध उत्पादन के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. वर्ष 2021–22 में, दुग्ध उत्पादन में भारत का स्थान विश्व में दूसरा था। 2. वर्ष 2021–22 में, विश्वव्यापी दुग्ध उत्पादन में भारत का 24% अंशदान था। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which one of the following statements about the Group of Twenty (G20) is not correct?
- It was founded in 1999.
- The G20 summit is held annually under the leadership of a rotating Presidency.
- The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP.
- The G20 comprises twenty countries.
बीस के समूह (G20) के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही नहीं है?
- इसकी स्थापना 1999 में हुई थी।
- G20 शिखर सम्मेलन प्रति वर्ष एक क्रमावर्ती (रोटेटिंग) अध्यक्ष के नेतृत्व में आयोजित होता है।
- G20 सदस्य वैश्विक GDP के लगभग 85% को निरूपित करते हैं।
- G20 बीस देशों से मिलकर बना है।
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2022 was awarded for
- CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors
- click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry
- lithium-ion batteries
- palaeogenomics
रसायन-विज्ञान में नोबेल पुरस्कार, 2022 किसके लिए प्रदान किया गया?
- CRISPR/Cas9 जेनेटिक सीजर्स
- क्लिक केमिस्ट्री और बायो-ऑर्थोगोनल केमिस्ट्री
- लिथियम-आयन बैटरी
- पैलियोजीनोमिक्स
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements about a 'unicorn' is/are correct? 1. In the venture capital industry, the term 'unicorn' refers to any startup that reaches the valuation of $10 billion. 2. Only a privately held startup can be a unicorn. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
'यूनिकॉर्न' के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. उद्यम पूँजी उद्योग में, 'यूनिकॉर्न' शब्द $10 बिलियन के मूल्य-निर्धारण तक पहुँचने वाले किसी स्टार्ट-अप को निर्दिष्ट करता है। 2. केवल निजी धारण का स्टार्ट-अप ही यूनिकॉर्न हो सकता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.
Which of the following statements about Santosh Trophy Tournament, 2023 is/are correct? 1. The final match was played in Riyadh. 2. The final match was played between Karnataka and Meghalaya. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
संतोष ट्रॉफी टूर्नामेंट, 2023 के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. फाइनल मैच रियाद में खेला गया था। 2. फाइनल मैच कर्नाटक और मेघालय के बीच खेला गया था। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer and explanation: open it in the practice app. 3 days free when you register, then one ₹45 PYQ Pass for every exam on the site.